Aviation Warrant Officer Intermediate Course (AWOIC) Exam 3 Practice

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• Which of the following is NOT a Focus category?
• What is the purpose of a Phased Attack?
• What is the primary objective of the fire distribution plan?
• A part of which form of recon is to reconnoiter dominating terrain from which the enemy can influence the route?
• When is Recon conducted? (Ensure Continuous Recon)
• Which description best captures the GO DR DRE mnemonic for reconnaissance fundamentals?
• Planners can minimize risk and reduce force size by utilizing assets within which planning cell?
• Aviation is typically task organized to which forces?
• What is a Reconnaissance Objective?
• When does a movement to contact end?
• What best describes the GO DR DRE sequence as used in reconnaissance planning?
• Movement to Contact is used to
• What is a predetermined set of circumstances, based on risk assessment, which makes the success of the operation no longer probable?
• What is FFIR? Definition
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an Army echelon?
• Which BCT has Combined Arms Battalions?
• What is inherent to ALL Security Operations?
• Who leads the Maneuver cell?
• Pursuit is used for?
• In the acronym MOPPP, which action corresponds to the third P?
• Which two tasks are typical for an Engineer Company within a Brigade Combat Team (BCT)?
• The M230E1 (30mm) is effective against thin-skinned targets at what approximate range?
• Company-level rehearsal considerations should focus on which area?
• What is PIR? Definition
• Which BCT conducts offensive, defensive, and stability/support operations in support of the Combatant Commander objectives providing light infantry, towed artillery, and motorized reconnaissance?
• Which element should be protected from the enemy because its knowledge could compromise operations?
• AOPORD Briefs are decision briefs for the AATFC to approve or disapprove an operation.
• What is the Main Body?
• Reconnaissance provides information about the activities and resources of an enemy or about the geographic characteristics of an area. Which statement best describes its purpose?
• What do you use for Fire Position Selection?
• In reconnaissance planning, who is considered the customer for purposes of increasing situational understanding?
• What are the forms of reconnaissance?
• What is NORMA and When is it completed?
• Which statement best describes the focus of Security Operations?
• Which attack method is used to ensure that at least one company is always in the battle?
• Which plan selects the LZ?
• What is an Air Assault?
• What is the Reserve?
• Which term describes A tactical mission task that renders an enemy force incapable of completing its mission?
• Which BRASSCRAF factor is considered when selecting a firing position?
• Which form of reconnaissance is: A directed effort to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route?
• Which plan addresses the management of loads, including load distribution and bump plans?
• Which rehearsal type is specifically described as rehearsing only critical parts of the operation over communications networks?
• The Named Area of Interest is best described as which of the following?
• What level of command can approve deviations from the ABOS?
• What does the Fundamentals of Security provide?
• What are the four categories that Focus is described in?
• What is the level of DETAIL and level of AGGRESSIVENESS required to accomplish recon operations?
• Who plans the Engagement Area?
• Which BCT provides armored firepower with tanks, mechanized infantry, and self propelled artillery?
• Which form of reconnaissance has restrictive boundaries and is the most time consuming?
• Who assists the Protection & Contingencies cell lead?
• Which plan comes directly after Ground Tactical Plan in the reverse planning sequence?
• What is the MOST IMPORTANT COMPONENT of any plan?
• Which Fundamental of Security does not break contact unless directed by higher HQ?
• What is the one resource that most want more of when preparing a rehearsal?
• Which term identifies information the commander needs to understand the status of friendly forces?
• Task Organization?
• Which Form of Security protects the main body from effective observation, direct, and indirect fires?
• In reverse planning, which phase serves as the foundation for a successful air assault?
• Who should the Fire cell contain?
• ABCT stands for what?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a Theater Army enabling capability?
• What is the Aircrew OPORD (AOPORD) Brief?
• CAB stands for which term in ABCT context?
• What should the commander's reconnaissance consist of?
• Which form of recon is focused on obtaining detailed information about the terrain within a prescribed area?
• Who will most commonly establish a trigger line for initiation of the direct and indirect fire plan while the CC/AMC initiates fires?
• Which brigade type is typically attached to a theater, corps, or division to deliver a single capability?
• This fire distribution technique requires careful direct fire planning to prevent target overkill in the complementary sectors. What is the term for this technique?
• Which is the definition of Destroy?
• Which form of reconnaissance is a deliberate combat operation designed to discover or test the enemy's strength, dispositions, and reactions?
• Which planning cell ensures aircraft have sufficient flight hours, plans for varying fuel and weapons loads, and ensures indirect fire and joint enablers are available?
• Reconnaissance is an implied task for which group?
• In the AMB, which document identifies landing zones and pickup zones?
• What are the Fundamentals of Reconnaissance?
• What is the fundamental of Reconnaissance where early and accurate warning are critical and enables commanders to make timely decisions?
• Which BCT is described as highly lethal and mobile with combined arms firepower?
• Which cell contains the COMSEC officer?
• Where is the Commander's Reconnaissance Guidance located?
• Which BCT type is described as providing armored firepower with tanks, mechanized infantry, and self-propelled artillery?
• What is the only security task that aviation can perform autonomously?
• Which statement about the Command & Signal cell is true?
• What is the primary purpose of the AMB?
• Which movement to contact technique focuses on capturing or destroying enemy forces or contraband?
• In the described fire planning approach, the trigger line is used to mark when to initiate which actions?
• Which statement defines an Attack in offensive operations?
• What type of brigade provides a variety of functions in support of operations?
• Which attack type is designed to exert maximum effects on the enemy force?
• Who commands 2-5 Army divisions together with supporting brigades and commands?
• During an AOPORD Brief, when do you discuss contingencies?
• Which plan is the foundation for a successful air assault?
• Which Armored Infantry Battalion composition is listed as a valid configuration?
• What are the Fundamentals of Security?
• Which two ways can an Attack be conducted?
• What are the 3 elements of the Commander's Security Guidance?
• Which roles are involved in the Sustainment cell?
• What is the Security Force?
• Which form of reconnaissance focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area?
• Which of the following is a Focus category used in reconnaissance planning?
• Which Fire Control Principle emphasizes using each weapon system in its best role?
• Which planning cell is responsible for planning Target Reference Points on terrain features and known enemy locations?
• What dictates a mission planning cell size?
• Which Form of Security provides early warning to the protected force/main body?
• When is reconnaissance performed?
• In the acronym MOPPP, what does the letter O stand for?
• Which term describes a fire distribution approach that overlays designated fire zones on a moving map display using aircraft software?
• In the Fundamentals of Security, what does the letter M represent in MOPPP?
• What are the three types of employment methods?
• Which of the following is a limitation affecting Air Assault operations?
• Which statement best describes a Reconnaissance Objective?
• Which statement correctly identifies the four Focus categories?
• Which BCT is described as highly mobile with combined arms firepower?
• Who is the Army's Principal Tactical Warfighting Formation during LSCO?
• What is the Fundamental of Recon when Cavalry forces find and sustain contact with the enemy on terms and conditions of their choosing?
• Which Fire Control Principle recommends concentrating on long-range targets during the final phase of engagement?
• Who conducts both operational and administrative C2 over Army-Forces theater-wide, providing enabling capabilities such as intel, sustainment, signal, fires, information activities, civil affairs, engineer and medical?
• Which statement best summarizes the sequence of steps for Movement to Contact?
• Which plan component outlines the overall concept of how operations will be conducted?
• PIR stands for Priority Intelligence Requirement. What is its role in reconnaissance planning?
• Which form of reconnaissance focuses on gathering information about routes and terrain to assess potential enemy movement along that route?
• What does it mean to retain freedom of maneuver?
• Which of the following is an example of a Functional Brigade?
• Which Form of Security is task conducted to protect friendly forces, installations, routes, and actions within a specific AREA?
• At a minimum, the mission unit will be organized into how many elements?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three employment methods?
• The fire distribution method that utilizes aircraft software to overlay designated fire zones on the moving map display is called?
• To aid rapid integration of multiple aviation brigades in operations, what should commanders do with differences within the SOP?
• Which mnemonic is used to summarize the Fundamentals of Reconnaissance?
• Which statement best describes the difference between Close Attack and Deep Attack?
• Which term describes a fire distribution concept that assigns fire zones based on aircraft tool outputs?
• Which statement defines the objective of an Attack?
• The Attack Battalion consist of the following:
• Which Form of Security can be performed autonomously?
• In air assault terminology, what does PZ stand for?
• Who establishes control measures for the direct-fire fight?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between Brigade Combat Teams and Divisions?
• What is an offensive control measure that designates a general location from which to utilize direct and indirect fires to engage an enemy?
• What is a support by fire position?
• Who may be sent to the supported unit?
• What are the reconnaissance management?
• Which cell is led by AMC with Flight Lead?
• What are the two Fire Controls?
• In the acronym MOPPP, which action corresponds to the first P?
• A Cavalry squadron's main contribution to the Brigade is:
• Which Army Echelon provides a single function or capability?
• Which is the definition of Defeat?
• Which Fundamental of Security operates as far from the main body as possible?
• Which element is described as the back up in the unit structure?
• Compared to zone reconnaissance, movement to contact is typically:
• What are effective tools that can be used to control a rehearsal?
• What is the primary difference between Recon and Security?
• In the described plan, which entity is primarily responsible for initiating fires?
• If a weapon system is used outside its best role, which principle is violated?
• What does a CCIR do?
• Which rehearsal is designed to ensure integration across multiple arms of the force?
• What are the reconnaissance techniques?
• Within which plan do aircrew briefings, finalizing mission planning, and rehearsals happen?
• Who leads the Command & Signal cell?
• Which plan develops considerations for the PZ selection, PZ organization and control, prep of air loading tables, coordination with aviation unit, disposition of loads, bump plans?
• Who is the Senior Army Tactical Formation in LSCO?
• In the reverse planning sequence, which option correctly identifies the sequence of the five plans?
• Recon Objectives are driven by?
• Who maintains the flexibility to deviate from the Aviation Branch SOP?
• Which item acts as a trigger to direct fire on the enemy even if communications or leadership is lost?
• Commanders analyze the mission variables of, to determine the best tempo for specific type of reconnaissance?
• The combined arms battalions are the ABCT's primary maneuver force.
• What is the most important result desired in Focus?
• How many distinct Army echelons are named in the material?
• Who tailors the scheme of maneuver to focus on the recon objective(s) without being decisively engaged, fixed, delayed, or distracted?
• Which is the definition of Delay?
• Where can you find the format for AOPORD Briefs?
• What is the primary difference between an air movement and an air assault?
• What is inherent in all security operations?
• Which of the following is NOT a Fire Control Principle?
• In the acronym MOPPP, which action corresponds to the second P?
• Which criteria has protocols that specify those circumstances where friendly forces must break contact with direct fire or observed indirect fire to prevent decisive engagement?
• Which BCT is best suited for dismounted operations in complex terrain?
• What is the difference between an Air Mission Brief and an Aircrew Brief?
• Which is the definition of Disrupt?
• Which statement about CCIR is true?
• Which term describes The act of drawing attention and forces an enemy from the point of the principal operation?
• The Named Area of Interest is defined as what?
• Which term represents moving recon elements into the AO to observe or engage?
• Which term describes the document whose content is translated into concrete actions by rehearsals?
• This statement describes the relationship between rehearsals and which document: "Rehearsals are used to translate the abstract ideas of the written plan into concrete actions"?
• Which of the following is NOT a Form of Security?
• BRASSCRAF factors include rotor wash.
• Which Fire Control Principle advises initiating the most opportunistic shot and minimizing exposure?
• Who conducts Guard missions for the Division and Corps?
• Which component is not part of the stated Attack Battalion structure?
• Which rehearsal focuses on validating timeline, decisions, and critical actions with senior leaders?
• Which rehearsal mirrors those of a full-dress rehearsal, even though fewer soldiers participate?
• Observation Posts are assets of which planning cell?
• What is the intent of an AOPORD Brief?
• Which form of reconnaissance is an implied task to reconnoiter dominating terrain that can influence the area, such as LZ/PZ Recon?
• Which Recon Management uses two or more like assets to collect against the same intelligence requirement, providing depth if an element is compromised or unable to observe?
• In the reverse planning sequence, which plan comes immediately after the Ground Tactical Plan?
• When is the backbrief conducted?
• To facilitate a flexible response, what arrangement is used within subordinate forces during Movement to Contact?
• What is the primary role of the Security Force?
• After contact is gained, which course of action should you take?
• Task Organization is defined as a temporary grouping of forces designed to accomplish a specific mission. True or False?
• Which statement best describes Attack Aviation's status in some offensive operations?
• Aviation Task Force Rehearsals should emphasize the aviation:
• Which task is NOT performed by the aviation element of the Main Body?
• Which Fundamental of Security provides the main body commander with time and information to seize the initiative?
• Which plan develops considerations for air routes, en-route formation, terrain flight modes, fires, SEAD, air assault security, and mission command?
• Movement to Contact is ONLY conducted under which condition?
• Why conduct reconnaissance?
• Which statement best describes EEFI?
• NOT a required AMB document?
• What are the elements of the Commander's Reconnaissance Guidance?
• During LSCO, which headquarters can be employed, noting that 8th Army is the only active one?
• An offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes, and secures terrain, or both is called?
• Which BRASSCRAF factor is considered when selecting a firing position?
• Which are the four categories of Focus?
• During a Reconnaissance Pull, the Commander is...
• Which is the definition of Divert?
• During LSCO, which formation would typically command subordinate brigades on the battlefield?
• Which Army echelon is normally attached to Corps or Division to provide a variety of functions?
• Deep Attack is conducted against the enemy located relative to friendlies?
• TRP stands for which term in planning?
• Which contingency is explicitly listed for Aviation Task Force Rehearsals?
• Which Annex provides kneeboard-formatted planning and execution tools?
• Given sufficient planning time, primary, alternate, and supplemental firing positions may be planned for. True or False?
• What is a continuous process in operations planning?
• Which planning cell focuses on personnel recovery?
• Which of the following is an example of a Multifunctional Brigade?
• Which term is listed as a Mission Planning Cell?
• What are rehearsals used for?
• Which component plans attack or reconnaissance tasks as dictated by the commander?
• Reconnaissance ________ --- recon elements into the specific portions of the AO.
• Which Form of Security guards the main body by delaying and observing and reporting information, while preventing enemy ground observation of direct fire?
• Which term describes a tactical mission in which a CO integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo?
• Who leads the Threat planning cell?
• Which rehearsal practices by talking through critical portions of the operation over communications networks and the organization rehearses only the critical parts of the operation?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an Air Assault capability?
• When the enemy situation is highly uncertain, which force is typically larger?
• Which planning cell is primarily responsible for coordinating effects against enemy forces?
• Which action describes 'Develop the situation rapidly' in the Fundamentals of Reconnaissance?
• Which plan component addresses the 5Ws?
• What is the purpose of a Continuous Attack?
• In Security Operations, what is the purpose of 'economy of force'?
• What rehearsal helps subordinate leaders visualize the commander's intent and concept of operations?
• Which element answers 'Who am I supporting' in the plan?
• Which form of reconnaissance is a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a zone defined by boundaries?
• What is an Air Movement?
• The theater army's mission is limited to administrative control of Army forces. True or False.
• What are the five plans for the reverse planning sequence?
• Which criteria has protocols that specify those circumstances for initiating engagement with an enemy force?
• How many Mission Planning Cells are listed in the material?
• What happens to the Reserve Force if the enemy situation is more unknown?
• What is the purpose of Maximum Destruction?
• Which of the following is a fundamental directive for Movement to Contact?
• Which plan follows the Landing Plan in the reverse planning sequence?
• Which statement describes the Advance Guard?
• According to the material, the M230E1 30mm has an approximate effective range of 1700 meters against which type of targets?
• Air Assault vulnerabilities include being separated from what on the battlefield?
• Which option is NOT one of the four types of rehearsals?
• Which Fundamental of Security requires the security element to conduct thorough and continuous reconnaissance to gather information about the enemy and terrain for the protected commander?
• Which operations serve as an economy of force to prevent premature commitment of other combat power?
• Who conducts the AMB briefing process to approve the plan?
• What are Security Operations?
• Which are the two types of Attack?
• Which Fire Control Principle focuses on preventing target overkill?
• In GO DR DRE, which action comes after Orient on the reconnaissance objective?
• Which echelon often operates as part of a Division or Joint Task Force to conduct decisive action?
• The Main Body is described as which of the following?
• Which Recon Management integrates one or more types of recon or surveillance systems to provide information that directs follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system?
• Which Form is designed to protect the main body while enabling maneuver?
• Which of the following is an example of a Functional Brigade?
• In aviation terms, which term describes the location where personnel and equipment are inserted from aircraft?
• What is used to establish contact with enemy forces, regain contact after it is lost, and develop the tactical situation?
• Which Form is typically used to protect a specific location or objective?
• Which recon management is designed to provide timely information by linking one or more sensors to cue additional collection?
• Which of the following is an Army echelon listed in the material?
• Close Attack is conducted against the enemy within what range?
• Which asset is NOT listed as part of the Maneuver Cell's risk-minimizing techniques?
• Under what considerations should attack units expect to be task organized?
• Who leads the Protection and Contingencies cell?
• Which rehearsal produces the most detailed understanding of the operation?
• Which of the following is NOT a Mission Planning Cell?
• What are the Forms of Security?
• Multi-purpose sub-munitions (MPSM), High Explosives (HE), and Flechette are all munitions for which weapon system on the AH-64 D/E?
• In the Threat planning cell led by AMSO, which roles are included?
• Preparing to initiate movement provides the MTC element the best information about where the enemy might be and where they are not likely to be. Which pairing completes the blanks?
• Which statement best defines the Commander's Critical Information Requirement (CCIR)?
• What is an AMB?
• The Theater Army provides enabling capabilities such as intel, sustainment, signal, fires, information activities, civil affairs, engineer and medical. Which option correctly lists these capabilities?
• Which part of Task Organization provides flexibility to react to unforeseen circumstances and allows unit to resume movement?
• Continuous and focused collection efforts require an efficient ______ and __________ of reconnaissance assets?
• What is the most important element of any plan?
• When initiating Movement to Contact, initial contact should be made with:
• Which type of attack method exerts increased firepower on the enemy?
• In reverse planning, which step comes first in the order?
• Which unit is focused on shaping the fight for the next 24-48 hours and integrates Aviation/CAS?
• Which form of reconnaissance is typically most time-consuming due to restrictive boundaries?
• What is reconnaissance?
• The mission planning cell size is dictated by the mission _________ and ________ available. Which two factors are these?
• Which term describes a tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
• What is the Commander's specified Focus?
• When does a commander assign a Recon in Force?
• What is the exact number of AH-64 helicopters per attack company in the described Attack Battalion?
• Which Recon Management uses two or more like assets to collect the same information, providing depth if one asset cannot observe?
• Which term best describes the overall principal component of a tactical command or formation?
• Reconnaissance ___________ --- the main body to positions of tactical advantage.
• A movement to contact decreases the odds of a meeting engagement.
• During which phase are rehearsals conducted in the reverse planning sequence?
• Which Army echelon is the largest in scale and operates at the theater level?
• METT-TC is used to analyze mission variables to determine the tempo for which activity?
• What is the Fundamental of Recon when Cavalry forces act instinctively and urgently to increase the COMMANDER'S situational understanding of the terrain, enemy, and civilian populace? (Who is my customer?)
• Who approves the air assault plan during the AMB?
• How are support rehearsals normally conducted?
• Which of the following is NOT a Planning cell?
• Which statement accurately describes the Covering Force?
• Who controls Fires?
• Which term describes Slowing down the enemy's momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming decisively engaged?
• A sector in fire planning serves what purpose?
• What is Named Area of Interest (NAI)?
• What does MB stand for in this context?
• Which formation is identified as the Senior Army Tactical Formation in LSCO?
• Which form of reconnaissance is conducted along a specific path or road network?
• Which Army Echelon provides a variety of functions in support of operations?
• Which of the following is one of the five planning cells?
• Which option BEST describes why units are task organized for a Movement to Contact?
• Exploitation is used for?
• Which of the following is a form of contact in reconnaissance?
• What is Air Assault?
• What should be emphasized during an Aviation Task Force Rehearsal?
• Units perform a movement to contact when the tactical situation is unclear or when the enemy force is successful in breaking contact with friendly forces.
• Which battalion provides massing fires in space and time on single or multiple targets?
• Which Recon Management uses two or more different assets to collect against the same intelligence requirement, and can defeat efforts?
• Which statement about reconnaissance timing is correct?
• Which offensive operation does not require aviation planners to integrate closely with a ground maneuver unit, with AMC controlling maneuver and fires?
• During a Reconnaissance Push, the Commander has what level of understanding of the OE or enemy?
• What is the Division's primary role during LSCO?
• Which Fundamental of Security operates at a specific distance?
• What is the purpose of the air assault plan in mission planning?
• Which rehearsal has participants move markers on a map to represent unit locations and maneuvers?
• What does the CCIR consist of?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of a by-fire position in support of another maneuver?